MCQ on Biology Test series no. 3

Test series on Science

MCQ on Biology

Test series no. 3

1. Infective stage of Hookworm is called

(A) Rhabditiform larva

(B) Filariform larva

(C) Cercaria larva

(D) Metacercaria larva

 

2. Which of the following interaction symbol is correctly matched with their interaction name?

(A) Predation – (+,+)

(B) Parasitism – (-,-)

(C) Amensalism- (-,0)

(D) All are correct

 

3. In human which of the following has 23 chromosomes?

(A) Spermatogonia

(B) Secondary oocyte

(C) Zygote

(D) Oogonia

 

4. The stain used to visualize mitochondria is ……….

(A) Janus green-B

(B) Janus pink-B

(C) Zanus yellow-B

(D) None of the above

 

5. Which of the following is an example of sesamoid bone?

(A) Pelvis

(B) Patella

(C) Pterygoid

(D) All of the above

 

6. ………………. is a part of endomembrane system.

(A) Lysosome

(B) Vesicles

(C)  Golgi apparatus

(D) All of the above

 

7. Mitochondria without outer membrane are called.

(A) kistoplast

(B) citoplast

(C) mitoplast

(D) None of the above

 

8. Which of the following is the oldest Biosphere Reserve of India?

(A) Nilgiris

(B) Panna

(C) Simplipal

(D) Nanda Devi

 

9. Ruminants have a large compound stomach. These are the mammals that chew the cud. Which of the following Ruminant lacks omasum (psalterium) chamber?

(A) Cow

(B) Camel

(C) Sheep

(D) Buffalo

 

10. Select the correct match for Extinct animal with their country?

(A) Thylacine- Africa

(B) Quagga – Mauritius

(C) Dodo – Australia

(D) Steller’s sea cow- Russia 

 

11. 3′ G T Py Pu A C 5′ 5′ C A Pu Py T G 3′ is the restriction site of which enzyme?

(A) Bam HIR

(B) Eco RIH

(C) Hind II

(D) Hind III

 

12. Ecology equivalents is best defined by

(A) Organisms that occupy the same or similar ecological niche in different geographical region. 

(B) It is the population of individuals of only one species.

(C) It is the ultimate distributional unit within which each species is held by its structural and instinctive limitations.

(D) It is concerned with the trophic position of an organism.

 

13. Which tissue is a result of re-differentiation?

(1) Cork (2) Phellogen (3) Secondary cortex (4) Secondary xylem

 

(A) Option 1, 3 and 4

(B) Option 2, 3 and 4

(C) Option 3, and 4

(D) None of the above

 

14. Which one of the following is a X-linked recessive disease?

(A) Pseudorickets

(B) Diabetes insipidus

(C) Haemophilia 

(D) Hypertrichosis

 

15. First Human clock gene was discovered by whom?

(A) Seymour

(B) Rono Konopka

(C) Ying-Hui-fu

(D) Hee Supshia

 

16. ………is involved in breathing, sound production and protecting the trachea.

(A) Flexion

(B) Larynx or voice box

(C) Pronation

(D) Adduction

 

17. Which of the following codon do not specify arginine?

(A) AGA

(B) CGC

(C) AGU

(D) CGG

 

18. How many categories of ecosystem services as defined in MEA 2005.

(A) 4

(B) 5

(C) 6

(D) 2

 

19. Genetically different type of pollen grains are brought to the stigma during ………..

(A) Chasmogamy

(B) Geitonogamy

(C) Xenogamy

(D) Cleistogamy

 

20. Ribozymes are

(A) Proteinaceous biocatalyst

(B) Allosteric enzymes

(C) Enzymes present only in ribosomes

(D) Non-proteinaceous biocatalyst

 

21. Which of the following is responsible for failure of vaccine in infants?

(A) Glucocorticoids

(B) Maternal antibodies

(C) Endotoxins

(D) Serum protease

 

22. There are ……………. Codons in a genetic code.

(A) 54

(B) 64

(C) 74

(D) 84

 

23. Which of the following codon has dual function?

(A) GUG

(B) MUG

(C) NUG

(D) AUG

 

24. The ultimate source of energy for a detritus food chain is ……

(A) Green plants

(B) Dead wood

(C) Sun

(D) Soil

 

25. Which of the following is/are statement is incorrect for snakes?

(A) Bones of palate are moveable

(B) Pectoral girdle is present

(C) Ribs are free ventrally

(D) Snakes are sensitive to air borne vibration

 

26. Armadillo contributed to the development of vaccine for

(A) Tuberculosis

(B) Leprosy

(C) Corona

(D) AIDS

 

27. Chemically FSH (follicular stimulating hormone) is …………….

(A) Sphingolipid

(B) Glycolipids

(C) Glycoprotein

(D) None of the above

 

28. Antisense technology is

(A) RNA polymerase that produce DNA

(B) A cell displaying a foreign antigen used for synthesis of antigens

(C) When a piece of RNA that is complementary in sequence is used to stop expression of a specific gene.

(D) None of the above 

 

29. Which of the following statement is wrong about mitochondrial DNA and nuclear DNA?

(A) They differ in melting temperature

(B) They differ in type of bases. 

(C) They differ in their buoyant density value.

(D) They differ in G-C content.

 

30. Which of the following is correct sequence of the components in a reflex arc?

(A) Muscles → Motor neuron → receptor → Sensory neuron → Spinal cord

(B) Receptors → Sensory neurons → Spinal cord → Motor neuron → Muscles

(C) Muscles → Sensory neuron → Spinal cord → Motor neuron → Receptors

(D) Receptor → Motor neuron → Spinal cord → Sensory neuron → Muscles

 

31. The first tetrapods originated in ……….

(A) Carboniferous

(B) Silurian

(C) Devonian period

(D) Ordovician period

 

32. Which one of the following cells maintain a current of water in sponge?

(A) Porocyte

(B) Chromocyte

(C) Myocyte

(D) Choanocyte

 

33. Conchology is the study of …………..

(A) Shell of Mollusca

(B) Mentle of Mollusca

(C) Mollusca

(D) Suprapedal gland of Mollusca

 

34. Which of the following is not true about Virion?

(A) Crystalizable

(B) Acellular

(C) Intracellular

(D) Extracellular

 

35. The union of sinus venosus with right auricles in some cases in mammals is marked externally by

(A) Crista terminalis

(B) Sinus venarum

(C) Sulcus terminalis

(D) Appendix auricule

 

36. Which of the following enzyme is present on outer membrane of mitochondria?

(A) Citrate synthetase

(B) β-oxidation enzyme

(C) Carnitine transferase fatty

(D) Monoamine oxidase

 

37. The cartilage that forms the laryngeal prominence during male adolescence is

(A) Thyroid cartilage 

(B) Cricoid

(C) Epiglottis

(D) Arytenoids

 

38. Which of the following is the largest cartilage of the larynx and is composed of two halves.

(A) Ear cartilage

(B) Thyroid cartilage 

(C) Epiglottis

(D) Cricoid

 

39. Protogynous hermaphrodites refer to organisms that are born female and some point in their life span change sex to male. The example of protogyny is

(A) Dwarf angle fish

(B) Laevapex fuscus

(C) Clown fish

(D) Star fish

 

40. Nissel’s granules are made up of

(A) RNA and Protein

(B) RNA and Ribosomes

(C) RNA and Cholesterol

(D) None of the above

 

41. Which is use as fish bait?

(A) Leech

(B) Pheretima

(C) Nereis

(D) Arenicola

 

42. PBR-322 used as vector for cloning is

(A) A modified bacterial plasmid     

(B) An original viral genome

(C) A modified transposon

(D) A modified viral plasmid

 

43. Select the incorrect statement regarding facilitated transport in plants

(A) Special membrane proteins are required for the process.

(B) It is a downhill transport.

(C) In this process, the transport saturates

(D) It is a non-selective process

 

44. Which one of the following is correct regarding Heartwood?

(A) Heartwood is less susceptible to fungus and contains less moisture than sapwood.

(B) Heartwood stores secondary metabolites and have tylosis.

(C) Both (A) and (B) are correct

(D) None of the above is correct

 

45. Which of the following is the most abundant biomolecule on earth?

(A) RUBISCO 

(B) Cellulose

(C) RNA and DNA

(D) Lignin

 

46. Trichodesmium, the cause of redness of Red Sea is

(A) A Cyanobacterium 

(B) An archae bacteria

(C) The Red mould

(D) A Cyanobacter

 

47. The Rivet Popper Hypothesis was proposed by

(A) Paul Rivet and Popper H.

(B) Farman, Gardiner and Shanklin

(C) H. R. Popper

(D) Paul Ehrlich

 

48. Which of the following is not an attribute of a population?

(A) Natality

(B) Age pyramid

(C) Species interaction

(D) None of the above 

 

49. Which of the following is the correct statement in reference to the pollen tube. Pollen tube exhibits?

(A) Chemotactic movement

(B) Chemonastic movement

(C) Chemotropic movement

(D) Thigmotropic movement

 

50. The oxygen scavenging in Frankia induced root nodules for nitrogen fixation, is carried out by …………

(A) Heterocysts

(B) Leghaemoglobin

(C) Nitrogenase

(D) Hopanoid

 

51. The number of chromosomes in a somatic cell of onion is 16. How many DNA molecules are there in a root tip cell of onion during metaphase stage of cell division?

(A) 32

(B) 64

(C) 16

(D)  8

 

52. Which of the following is/are correctly matched with their life cycle?

(1) Haplontic life cycle – Chlamydomonas

(2) Diplontic life cycle – Fucus

(3) Diplohaplontic life cycle – Ectocarpus

(4) Triphasic life cycle – Polysiphonia

 

(A) Option (1) and (4)

(B) Option (2) and (3)

(C) Option (3) and (1)

(D) All options are correct

 

53. Which of the following statement is not correct?

(1) CNG is considered safer than LPG

(2) LPG releases carbon di-oxide and is difficult to disperse.

(3) LPG is also known as Liquified Petroleum Gas

 

(A) Option (1) is correct

(B) Option (2) is correct

(C) All options are correct

(D) All options are incorrect

 

54. Which of the following is not a free-living nitrogen fixing bacteria?

(A) Frankia

(B) Beijerinckia

(C) Clostridium

(D) Klebsiella

 

55. PAR is known as

(A) Producer Activation Response

(B) Productive Activation Response

(C) Photosynthetically Active Radiation 

(D) None of the above

 

56. The World Summit on sustainable development was held at

(A) Rio-de-Janeiro

(B) Copenhagen

(C) Johannesburg

(D) Kyoto Japan 

 

57. Select the correct order of serial stages of Lithosere

(A) Stone wort → Peat moss → Shrubs → Trees

(B) Peat moss → Herbs → Stone worts → Moss

(C) Crustose Lichens → Foliose Lichens → Herbs → Scrub stage

(D) Foliose Lichens → Crustose Lichens → Peat moss

 

58. The final acceptor of electrons in the electron transport chain is

(A) Cytochrome C

(B) Plastoquinone

(C) ATPase

(D) Oxygen 

 

59. The taxonomical aid where plants and animals are recognised based on contrasting characteristics is known as

(A) Monograph

(B) Herbarium

(C) Key

(D) Manual

 

60. Endonuclease enzyme responsible for the cleavage of

(A) Phospho-di-ester bonds

(B) N-glycosidic linkage

(C) Hydrogen bonds

(D) Peptide bonds

61. Photomorphogenesis in response to red and far red light is regulated by

(A) Universal chlorophyll 

(B) Cryptochrome

(C) Phytochrome

(D) Phycobilins

 

62. Which of the following is not an example of genetically modified organism?

(A) Glo fish

(B) Flavr Savr

(C) Molly

(D) Golden Rice

 

63. Vegetative propagation in Eichornia takes place by

(A) Offset

(B) Bulb

(C) Swollen leaf base

(D) Rhizome

 

64. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) of waste water is determined by measuring the amount of

(A) Total organic matter

(B) Oxygen consumption

(C) Biodegradable organic matter

(D) Ratio of Biodegradable organic matter to the total organic matter

 

65. The DNA polymerase used in PCR is obtained from

(A) Bacillus thuringiensis

(B) Thermus aquaticus

(C) Methanogens

(D) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

 

66. The length of food chain is limited to

(A) 3-4 trophic levels

(B) 4-7 trophic levels

(C) 5-8 trophic levels

(D) It is not limited

 

67. Skull in members of ratitiae is

(A) Schizognathous type

(B) Desmognathous type

(C) Dromaeognathous type

(D) Aegithognathous type

 

68. Select the incorrect sequence of Geological periods/Era using the codes given below

A. Triassic Cretaceous → Jurassic 

B. Paleozoic → Mesozoic → Cenozoic

C. Devonian → Silurian → Carboniferous

 

(A) A and C

(B) A and B

(C) Only B

(D) Only C

 

69. Which one of the following is not needed during formation of Acetyl CoA from pyruvic acid?

(A) Lipoic Acid

(B) Thiamine Pyrophosphate

(C) Aconitase

(D) N.A.D.

 

70. Select the correct definition of osmosis?

(A) Movement of water from higher concentration to concentration lower

(B) Movement of water from its higher concentration to its lower concentration through semi permeable membrane

(C) Movement of water through aquaporins present in membrane

(D) None of the above 

 

71. Epidermal scales are present in

(A) Scoliodon

(B) Rabbit

(C) Lizard

(D) Frog

 

72. CD8 cells recognize antigens present on

(A) Interferon

(B) Plasmocytes

(C) Hepatocytes

(D) Erythrocytes

 

73. Which one of the following is the systematic name for Lactate dehydrogenase?

(A) E.C.1.1.1.27

(B) E.C.1.1.1.1

(C) E.C.2.3.1.6

(D) E.C.1.11.1.6

 

74. While migrating larva of Ascaris takes place its 4th moult in

(A) Liver

(B) Lung

(C) Intestine

(D) Heart

 

75. Sickle cell anaemia is the result of which type of mutation in the haemoglobin gene?

(A) Frame shift mutation

(B) Deletion

(C) Point mutation

(D) Duplication

 

76. The phenomenon in which a single gene may express more than one effect is known as ……………

(A) Pleiotropy

(B) Mosaicism

(C) Polygeny

(D) Multiple allelism

 

77. Find the odd one out from the following

(A) Ribose 

(B) Sucrose

(C) Glucose

(D) Fructose

 

78. In citric acid cycle, substrate level phosphorylation takes place in which of the following step?

(A) Succinate → Fumarate

(B) Malate → Oxaloacetate

(C) Isocitrate → α-Ketoglutarate

(D) Succinyl CoA → Succinate

 

79. Which of the following is not a characteristic of r-selected species?

(A) Low survival rate of progenies

(B) Reproduce quickly

(C) Parental care

(D) Produce large number of progenies

 

80. A moss differs from a fern in having

(A) A dependent sporophyte

(B) An independent gametophyte

(C) Motile male gametes

(D) Alternation of generations

 

81. Wilmott’s bubbler is used for …………

(A) Transpiration experiments

(B) Photosynthesis experiments

(C) Plant growth studies

(D) Plant tissue culture

 

82. The fallopian tube extends from ovary to uterus. Which is the correct sequence of parts of oviduct?

(A) Infundibulum → Ampulla → Isthmus

(B) Isthmus → Ampulla → Infundibulum

(C) Infundibulum → Isthmus → Ampulla

(D) Ampulla → Infundibulum → Isthmus

 

83. Which one of these is known as “Terror of Bengal”?

(A) Bengal Cat

(B) Bengal Monitor

(C) Bengal Gram

(D) Eichhornia crassipes

 

84. Genetic disorder caused due to pleiotropic gene mutation is ………..

(A) Down syndrome

(B) Huntington’s syndrome

(C) Cystic fibrosis

(D) Phenyl Ketonuria

 

85. Which of the following statement is not true about the Genetic code?

(A) It is read in contiguous fashion

(B) It is degenerate

(C) It is unambiguous

(D) It is universal

 

86. Which one of the following is not a aromatic amino acid?

(A) Tyrosine

(B) Phenylalanine

(C) Valine

(D) Tryptophan

 

87. Which one of the cranial nerve is glossopharyngeal in mammals?

(A) IX

(B) XX

(C) VI

(D) XIII

 

88. Which one of these does not have synovial joint?

(A) Pivot joint

(B) Vertebrae

(C) Hinge joint

(D) None of the above

 

89. Which of the following technique/s is/are used in DNA fingerprinting?

(A) Polymorphism in DNA

(B) Repetitive DNA

(C) Variable no. of Tandem repeats

(D) All options are correct

 

90. ……….. is a dreaded parasite of human blood and lymph.

(A) Cysticercus

(B) Filarial worm

(C) Sporozoite

(D) None of the above

 

91. Which of the following is not a nastic movement?

(A) Nyctinasty

(B) Thigmonasty

(C) Seismonasty

(D) Phytonasty

 

92. Biodegradation of organophosphorous compounds of xenobiotics is associated with the bacteria.

(A) Pseudomonas diminuta

(B) Flavobacterium

(C) Both (A) & (B)

(D) None of the above

 

93. Monosporic eight embryosac is in ………………..

(A) Allium

(B) Frittilaria

(C) Polygonum

(D) Plumbago

 

94. Which one is the correct order of cranial meninges in human brain from outer to inner side?

1) Duramater → Arachnoid → Piamater

2) Duramater → Piamater → Arachnoid

3) Piamater → Duramater → Arachnoid

4) Piamater → Arachnoid → Duramater

 

(A) Option (1)

(B) Option (2)

(C) Option (3)

(D) Option (4)

 

95. Which of the following Taxonomic term may be substituted for any of the others?

(A) Taxon

(B) Order

(C) Species

(D) Class

96. The filtration fraction in uriniferous tubule of a healthy person is ………….

(A) .002

(B) .20

(C) .02

(D) 2.0

 

97. Epigeal germination is observed in ………..

(A) Groundnut

(B) Mango

(C) Pea

(D) Castor

 

98. Which of these ribs are known as vertebrochondral ribs?

(A) 8, 9, 10

(B) 11 & 12

(C) 1 to 7

(D) 5 to 7

99. Taq polymerase is obtained from ……..

(A) An archea 

(B) An artificial chromosome

(C) A fungi

(D) A plant

100. Which of the following enzyme is known as the molecular scissors?

(A) Lyase

(B) Ligase

(C) Restriction endonuclease

(D) Opines

 

 

Answer Key on Next Page

Answer key

1-(B) 2-(C) 3_(B) 4-(A) 5-(B) 6-(D) 7-(C) 8-(A) 9-(B) 10-(D)
11-(C) 12-(A) 13-(A) 14-(C) 15-(C) 16-(B) 17-(C) 18-(A) 19-(C) 20-(D)
21-(B) 22-(B) 23-(D) 24-(C) 25-(B) 26-(B) 27-(C) 28-(C) 29-(B) 30-(B)
31-(C) 32-(D) 33-(A) 34-(C) 35-(C) 36-(D) 37-(A) 38-(B) 39-(A) 40-(B)
41-(A) 42-(A) 43-(D) 44-(C) 45-(B) 46-(A) 47-(D) 48-(C) 49-(C) 50-(D)
51-(A) 52-(A) 53-(C) 54-(A) 55-(C) 56-(C) 57-(C) 58-(D) 59-(C) 60-(A)
61-(C) 62-(C) 63-(A) 64-(B) 65-(B) 66-(A) 67-(C) 68-(D) 69-(C) 70-(B)
71-(C) 72-(C) 73-(A) 74-(C) 75-(C) 76-(A) 77-(B) 78-(D) 79-(C) 80-(A)
81-(B) 82-(A) 83-(D) 84-(D) 85-(D) 86-(C) 87-(A) 88-(B) 89-(D) 90-(B)
91-(D) 92-(C) 93-(C) 94-(A) 95-(A) 96-(B) 97-(D) 98-(A) 99-(A) 100-(C)